Please answer my questions. Thanks.
In a nutshell: How can Biblical prophecies be used to show the inerrancy of the Bible (and by implication, a literal creation) when not all Christians agree on their interpretation or whether they have all come to pass?
Since when is truth determined by vote? Either someone had foreknowledge or they didn't. The method of testing this is both obvious and scientific.
And why is the same standard of inerrancy not applied to other religious and non-religious prophecies?
Applied by whom? Nobody's stopping you from applying it, are they?
In other words, what is your system for determining that the prophecies of the Bible are the Truth and not others?
Your first. What is your system?
Hindus claim that their prophecies are divine and have been, or will be, fulfilled, so who is right? Can you claim that it is anything other than a matter of personal belief?
It is a matter of investigation. Anyone can investigate any such claims they encounter.
If one chooses to follow the procedures recommended in the bible, a single miss is all it takes to falsify a claim that an individual is/was a prophet. This is parallel to the scientific rule which falsifies an hypothesis if it fails even once.
