Please answer my questions. Thanks.

In a nutshell: How can Biblical prophecies be used to show the inerrancy of the Bible (and by implication, a literal creation) when not all Christians agree on their interpretation or whether they have all come to pass? And why is the same standard of inerrancy not applied to other religious and non-religious prophecies? In other words, what is your system for determining that the prophecies of the Bible are the Truth and not others? Hindus claim that their prophecies are divine and have been, or will be, fulfilled, so who is right? Can you claim that it is anything other than a matter of personal belief?