Please point out where I am insulting the Christian religion in my post. I am questioning belief in the inerrancy of Biblical prophecies as proof of Biblical inerrancy, and also asking why the same standards aren't applied to other religious and non-religious prophecies. It would be refreshing if you could simply answer my questions, thanks. Please bear in mind that the kinds of questions I've raised have also been raised by Christians, and not all Christians view Biblical prophecies in the same way.