Originally Posted by LinearAQ
Again Jesus refers to adultery. Are you saying adultery is the same as fornication?


You can try to make them opposites all day long Linear but it never work. they are pretty much one and the same, just variations of context. which is probably why your translations interchange the words without difficulty also.

Originally Posted by LinearAQ
In context, Jesus is referring to the fact that the people of Sodom were not expecting the judgment and were unprepared for it. He said nothing about why they were judged.


He didn't have to. He was was speaking to a crowd that spent every sabbath day in the temple studying the scripture. people who could quote scripture at a moment's notice.

Originally Posted by LinearAQ
These 2 are not quotes from Jesus.


Does it matter? Are you trying to indicate the writer was not taught by Jesus?