I was also going to refer to that particular post. Selective memory is working on some people here again.

I don't see any reason to doubt that a flood actually happened in the middle east and was recorded in the Bible. I don't see any reason to doubt that floods occurred in other places as well, and that some of them were recorded in various ways too. The question here is: Can you prove that the Biblical flood was global? What's more, why is there a need to? I've been to a few web pages run by Christians, who go into the exact wording used in the original Hebrew texts and discuss how the meanings can be interpreted. It looks to me like there's no solid reason why the flood had to be global, not even from a Biblical literalist perspective. You're welcome to try to make a case otherwise if you can, giving evidence to substantiate your claims.